Nemesis
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Not all states but most states. This is possible because of the huge disparities within India. It is only 5 or 6 states of India that account for India's overall economic performance. Also some states have such a minuscule population that their per capita income is magnified even if it has a tiny economy. If this was not the case how does India have worse nutrition statistics than Pakistan and Bangladesh and why do 200 000 farmers commit suicide.
Firstly i thought it was just Maharashtra? Now it's some states? Good, we're getting somewhere.
So, what you're saying is that because of the inequalities in income in India, the per capita of India is higher than Bangladesh? Let us look at this inequality of income then.
Inequality of income in a country is measured by the Gini Coefficient.
Gini Coefficient - The Gini coefficient is a measure of statistical dispersion, commonly used as a measure of inequality of income distribution or inequality of wealth distribution. It is defined as a ratio with values between 0 and 1: A low Gini coefficient indicates more equal income or wealth distribution, while a high Gini coefficient indicates more unequal distribution. 0 corresponds to perfect equality.
In Bangladesh - 33.4
In India - 36.8
Clearly, the difference between India and Bangladesh is negligible, so your point that skewed income inequality in India results in a higher Per Capita Income is incorrect.
You do not even see the absurdity of the figures you are presenting. India has an economy 10 times that of Bangladesh but is placed only 15 places above it on the HDI. The last census in Bangladesh was done in 2001 and I have no idea when they were done in India so your comparisons do not make any sense. You could be comparing figures almost a decade apart. My comment on Indian poverty therefore still stands.
The last census in India was also in 2001. My poverty figures on India are from that census.
Once again, GDP - Economy multiplied by Population, so it is irrelevant if India is 10 times bigger than India. What matters is the life of the average citizen in India is better than in Bangladesh.
However, the reason why India is only 15 places better than Bangladesh is because of it's over population which skews the Human development indicator. For example, a statement will be thrown out to suggest that India has as many poor people as Sub-Saharan Africa, this is true, but China also has 200 million poor people, does that mean China and Sub Saharan Africa can be equated? No.
Hence your statement on Indian poverty does not stand. Anything else?