How genetics is settling the Aryan migration debate (Aryan Invasion Theory is proven)

[footmarks]

No theory can prove beyond doubt about the "invasion" part. Genes do not tell you whether they mingled due to invasion or intermingling "peacefully". Period.

By same logic as the opening post - Adam "invaded" eve, there was no love/lust. Adam was a male, where were his female family members? it was an invasion!!

 

[Han Patriot]

No theory can prove beyond doubt about the "invasion" part. Genes do not tell you whether they mingled due to invasion or intermingling "peacefully". Period.

By same logic as the opening post - Adam "invaded" eve, there was no love/lust. Adam was a male, where were his female family members? it was an invasion!!

If it was only a small population of intermingling, it would be understandable, but you are talking a billion people all with the same trait of having a male caucasoid lineage and female dravidian lineage in the North of India while the South is related to Austroloids aka Australian Aborigines. This is not coincidence my friend.

1) Sanskrit has ZERO similarity with either Iran or Europe. What it has links to though are the 4 Dravidian languages, Telugu, Tamil, kannada and Malayalam. So, stop throwing crap or show proof.

2)The genetic study says we are all similar. Perhaps YOU need to re-read the genetic study done by Harvard.

3)So, what happened to the so called Aryan culture in Iran? Where did it vanish? Why don't the current Iranians have no genetic match to Indians?

It's Chinese who invaded the dalits and threw them out of their land and renamed it as China. You are from Arctica as proved by Dr Tedayeda ( he is a great professor by the way). So, your theory has more crap than Mao crapped in his life

Don't argue with me man, argue with the linguist, Sanskrit had been group and Indo-european language related to Old Indo-Iranian..Well, this is my two cents, you can believe what you want. If you are lower caste dark skinned and South Indian, I hope you can explore your own identities and seek the truth from this oppression.

 

[footmarks]

If it was only a small population of intermingling, it would be understandable, but you are talking a billion people all with the same trait of having a male caucasoid lineage and female dravidian lineage in the North of India while the South is related to Austroloids aka Australian Aborigines. This is not coincidence my friend.

A billion? the whole study was done basis a sample size of about 16000 volunteers from 100+ countries!!

 

[sinait]

The person coming up with theory should provide proofs.

You are right, I agree. So where is your proof for this post of yours.

When genetic study showed there is no difference, how come the experts here come and preach the alternate?

Anyway I don't take a position on Aryan theory.
I think it is not nice that I, not an Indian, to speculate on their origins.
For me, India is a historically recent cocktail mix of diverse people and they are still debating on what are the origins of the people presently residing in modern India.
.

 

[Han Patriot]

A billion? the whole study was done basis a sample size of about 16000 volunteers from 100+ countries!!

It's a sampling my friend. It's a representation of majority of the population.

 

[footmarks]

It's a sampling my friend. It's a representation of majority of the population.

The sample size need to be significant enough to represent, with significantly high confidence level, the entire population.

 

[sinait]

Bro, proof is usually given by some one providing the theory.
I am only showing the mirror. neither of us have any proofs. I can't prove Chinese threw our Dalits from the now called 'china' and neither can you prove Aryan invasion theory.

Are you a troll?
I don't care there are Dalits in China or Aryan invasion theory.
I repeat, I think its not nice to speculate about others ancestry.
You said this about Indians, just wondering if it came out of your *

When genetic study showed there is no difference, how come the experts here come and preach the alternate?

 

[footmarks]

Sanskrit is the closest languahe to the Iranian avastan. Both language share 95% similar vocalbury.

So maybe, persians originated in the indian subcontinent and later reached middle east - a persian migration/invasion theory?

 

[faithfulguy]

So maybe, persians originated in the indian subcontinent and later reached middle east - a persian migration/invasion theory?

The linguist had proved that Sanskrit split from avistan and entered India.

According to Anthony, the following terminology may be used:[2]

• Early PIE for "the last common ancestor of the Anatolian and non-Anatolian IE branches";
• Post-Anatolian PIE for "the last common ancestor of the non-Anatolian PIE languages, including Tocharian";
• Late PIE for "the common ancestor of all other IE branches."

The Anatolian languages are the first Indo-European language family to have split off from the main group. Due to the archaic elements preserved in the Anatolian languages, they may be a "cousin" of Proto-Indo-European, instead of a "daughter," but Anatolian is generally regarded as an early offshoot of the Indo-European language group.[2]

The Indo-Hittite hypothesis postulates a common predecessor for both the Anatolian languages and the other indo-European languages, called Indi-Hittite or Indo-Anatolian.[2]Although it's obvious that PIE had predecessors,[13] the Indo-Hittite hypothesis is not widely accepted, and there is little to suggest that it is possible to reconstruct a proto-Indo-Hittite stage that differs substantially from what is already reconstructed for PIE.

 

[footmarks]

The linguist had proved that Sanskrit split from avistan and entered India.

According to Anthony, the following terminology may be used:[2]

• Early PIE for "the last common ancestor of the Anatolian and non-Anatolian IE branches";
• Post-Anatolian PIE for "the last common ancestor of the non-Anatolian PIE languages, including Tocharian";
• Late PIE for "the common ancestor of all other IE branches."

The Anatolian languages are the first Indo-European language family to have split off from the main group. Due to the archaic elements preserved in the Anatolian languages, they may be a "cousin" of Proto-Indo-European, instead of a "daughter," but Anatolian is generally regarded as an early offshoot of the Indo-European language group.[2]

The Indo-Hittite hypothesis postulates a common predecessor for both the Anatolian languages and the other indo-European languages, called Indi-Hittite or Indo-Anatolian.[2]Although it's obvious that PIE had predecessors,[13] the Indo-Hittite hypothesis is not widely accepted, and there is little to suggest that it is possible to reconstruct a proto-Indo-Hittite stage that differs substantially from what is already reconstructed for PIE.

These Linguists...Invariably everything end up originating in Europe according to them.

BTW, Technically it is not "proven", it is deduced by linguistics. Many ancient scripts, including indus scrpit, are yet to be understood, so that hypothesis can still change.

Anyways, assuming this to be true (I really believe this is true), it still does not prove "invasion" over migration intermingling.

 

[PeeD]

Iranian Y-DNA haplogroup is J2a, it spreads from central asia to Italy.
The connections to the Indians can be found in Bhramins which are ~20% J2a, but that's all.

 

[faithfulguy]

So maybe, persians originated in the indian subcontinent and later reached middle east - a persian migration/invasion theory?

This theory is debunked. Only Hindu nationalist would propose such a theory. In another word, this theory is obtained from where the sun do not shine. These are not my words. This is from India's official information site, wikipedia.


According to the linguistic center of gravity principle, the most likely point of origin of a language family is in the area of its greatest diversity.[66][note 11] By this criterion, Northern India, home to only a single branch of the Indo-European language family (i. e., Indo-Aryan), is an exceedingly unlikely candidate for the Indo-European homeland, compared to Central-Eastern Europe, for example, which is home to the Italic, Venetic, Illyrian, Albanian, Germanic, Baltic, Slavic, Thracian and Greek branches of Indo-European.[68]

Both mainstream Urheimat solutions locate the Proto-Indo-European homeland in the vicinity of the Black Sea.[69]

 

[footmarks]

This theory is debunked. Only Hindu nationalist would propose such a theory. In another word, this theory is obtained from where the sun do not shine. These are not my words. This is from India's official information site, wikipedia.


According to the linguistic center of gravity principle, the most likely point of origin of a language family is in the area of its greatest diversity.[66][note 11] By this criterion, Northern India, home to only a single branch of the Indo-European language family (i. e., Indo-Aryan), is an exceedingly unlikely candidate for the Indo-European homeland, compared to Central-Eastern Europe, for example, which is home to the Italic, Venetic, Illyrian, Albanian, Germanic, Baltic, Slavic, Thracian and Greek branches of Indo-European.[68]

Both mainstream Urheimat solutions locate the Proto-Indo-European homeland in the vicinity of the Black Sea.[69]

You didn't get the sarcasm I guess.

Anyways, my point remains - this linguistic theory does not/can not prove the "Aryan invasion" theory

 

[cloud_9]

So a brown guy from Middle East is a savour to Tony Joseph and his kin but brown guys from Central Asia are invaders?