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Does Pakistan's 'Earliest Historical times' start on 14-08-1947?
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Does Pakistan's 'Earliest Historical times' start on 14-08-1947?
Wrong sir.. India became a republic on 26-01-1950. However, the word India/Bharat/Hindustan has been around since pre-historical times. The word Pakistan was invented in 1930's.Nope. Over 9000 years ago. Republic of India's earliest historical times however do start from 15-08-1947.
Vedas were compiled at around 1600 BCE. How can earlier people be Vedic? Time travelers? You forgot to add Om seal in that list and unfortunately for you, those are the only ones that are kind of understood. Without deciphering them completely, your insistence that they were not connected to vedic people is telling.Out of a total of around 1800 seals that have been discovered from the IVC sites, only about three seals are linked by Indian Hindus to Hinduism, the so-called Pashupati look alike seal , the so-called Mother Goddess look alike seal and the Swastika seal.
Contrarily, there is overwhelming evidence that proves the fact that IVC was not Vedic by any stretch of imagination. Yet the insistence to the contrary is very surprising indeed.
link for the above BS please...Nope. Over 9000 years ago. Republic of India's earliest historical times however do start from 15-08-1947.
Wrong sir.. India became a republic on 26-01-1950. However, the word India/Bharat/Hindustan has been around since pre-historical times. The word Pakistan was invented in 1930's.
Vedas were compiled at around 1600 BCE. How can earlier people be Vedic? Time travelers? You forgot to add Om seal in that list and unfortunately for you, those are the only ones that are kind of understood. Without deciphering them completely, your insistence that they were not connected to vedic people is telling.
link for the above BS please...
Pre-history is the span of time before recorded history or the invention of writing systems. The term "prehistory" can also refer to the vast span of time since the beginning of the Universe, but more often it refers to the period since life appeared on Earth, or even more specifically to the time since human-like beings appeared.
Therefore, to be more precise, Indians are more like human like beings as they have existed since pre-history.
Arrey bhai, aisi sweeping statements to na diya karo.
Is there any rule that Sanskrit can't borrow letters from others?? For your kind information, languages are not written, scripts are. So, if some one writes Sanskrit in persian, sanskrit will also be written from right to left. Om is a symbol, single letter, like swastika.Pre-history is the span of time before recorded history or the invention of writing systems. The term "prehistory" can also refer to the vast span of time since the beginning of the Universe, but more often it refers to the period since life appeared on Earth, or even more specifically to the time since human-like beings appeared.
Therefore, to be more precise, Indians are more like human like beings as they have existed since pre-history.
Arrey bhai, aisi sweeping statements to na diya karo.
OM is a Sanskrit word and is seen to be written as such. The people of IVC did not speak or write Sanskrit. One does not even need to wear spectacles to see the IVC writing which is written right to left and Sanskrit written from left to right to find the answer. How could that IVC seal have OM written on it in Sanskrit. At times your interpretations are funny indeed.
Mehrgarh is a 9000 year old city located between Quetta and Sibi in Balochistan.
I quoted the figures from an Islamic site but you do agree that there were much more Hindus in Pak than Buddhists.Your figures are incorrect. I had posted the United Nations' figures of pre-1947 Hindu and Sikh Population in Pakistan, W. Punjab: 9% Hindu, 11% Sikh; Sindh: 10% Hindu, 5% Sikh; NWFP: 2.5% Hindu, 2.5% Sikh; Baluchistan: 3% Hindu. Over 50% of them left for India when the partition took place.
There have been very few conflicts b/w Hindus and Buddhists in India. The reason Hinduism saw a revival and Buddhism a decline was because of movements like Bhakti movement which espoused the worship of a personal deity and devotional hymns which greatly appealed to the masses.There is limited Buddhist population in the whole of India because the Brahmins systematically eliminated Buddhism and Buddhists from India and this is a historical fact no matter how much you Indians try to hide it. The places where Buddhists survive in India were probably out of reach of those Brahmins who eliminated them from India through the process of persecution and elimination. And also the Buddhists survived in places outside India where the Brahmin Hindu could not harm them. And now after persecution and elimination of Buddhists from India, you have the temerity of identifying them through constitutional edicts and supreme Court judgments as part of Hinduism and a sub-sect of Hinduism. Shameless people.
Such neutral sources exist only in your imagination as there is no Pakistani civilization. Some experts categorize Pak as part of Indian civilization while some consider it as part of an "Indo-Islamic civilization." If you have a neutral history source saying IVC is part of "Pak civilization" post it.many of these neutral sources have already started calling the IVC as Pakistani civilization. As the world comes to know about the reality, you will see only Indians identifying themselves with things which do not belong to them.
No I didn't say Vedic Hinduism existed before Vedas, I said it is based on older beliefs.copying aspects from the earlier times does not mean that they also used those same things which you do now. Like the 7000 year old swastika which was found in Belgium where they would certainly not have followed Hinduism by any stretch of imagination.
I don't care what rat/snake/cow/ idol worshiper think about my beautiful religion Islam. I am fully convinced that Islam is divine religion and all Abraham Religions and Prophets brought same message of Islam from same God which got corrupted over time. The difference is those prophets were appointed for particular nations/tribes but our prophet was appointed for all mankind. You can worship *** to thank it as well because you will not be able to poo without it . I don't care lol Hinduism is a copy paste from Buddhism, pagans and others practices of polytheist cultures
Nope. Over 9000 years ago. Republic of India's earliest historical times however do start from 15-08-1947.
1. Again, if Rigveda was composed outside India, Rudra/Shiva should have been in other religion.. they are not
2. Soma doesn't grow in India? may be not in current India, but in pak afghan border land, even today they drink soma...
3. It may not be exclusive, but what hinduism uses today is carryover from IVC than any other society.
4. Denouncing is not new in hinduism. Shaivites denounce vaishnavas and so on. Does it mean that they are not Hindus? That is why I asked specific question, where it is written that nastikas are non-hindus. It is your statement that they are not as I am not aware of single such statement from ancient times.
hinduism as it exists in india doesnt show up in archeological sites found in Pakistan , hinduism in india has dieties and figures like monkey , elephant , woman with many hands etc , such like figures have not been found in archelogical sites in Pakistan
how hindus counter this is that anything rod shaped object found anythwere at an archelogical site they say this is shiva and hence lay hinduism claim over it.
LoL.
These videos just resonate with Hindu virtue.
According to the UN estimates following were the pre-1947 percentages of Hindu and Sikh population in areas of Pakistan.
W. Punjab: 9% Hindu, 11% Sikh
Sindh: 10% Hindu, 5% Sikh
NWFP: 2.5% Hindu, 2.5% Sikh
Baluchistan: 3% Hindu
Over 50% of these figures migrated to India around the time of partition. Stop deliberately spreading false and incorrect information.
Also, Pre-1947 region of present-day Pakistan only had 15% non-Muslims, out of which half were Sikhs. Many of remaining half that were Hindus were actual migrants from the region of present day India during the British rule. For example, most of the Hindus in pre-1947 Karachi had migrated from Gujarat/Rajasthan during British rule because of Karachi's economic boom then.
And the lands of Pakistan were never Dharmic since the earliest historic times in any sense of the way and history proves it beyond any reasonable doubt. In any case Dharmic, Indic, Hindutva etc are racist terminologies which are used to spread the farce of a so-called superior supra-religion like the German Aryan race theory.
The Two nation Theory was not based on religion alone. It is primarily an Indian spread misinformation. The Two Nation Theory comprised the following major elements:
Religious differences
Governing differences
Civilizational differences
Cultural differences
Societal/Social differences
Economic differences
Political differences
You can live with your stages from being racists to supra-racists, as if any of us bothers.
Compare the massive destruction wrought by primitive uncivilized barbarian invaders that indulged in massive destruction and rapine, plunder, slavery and forced conversion etc with the deaths that occurred in Mahabharata and calculated by purest of the pure Indian Hindus - 1.66 Billion people. Can you imagine. From Rig Veda to other scriptures to Mahabharata, war is the primary element that is discussed and you have the temerity to accuse others of mass murder.
What is thankfully certain is the fact that there is no link of the Indus valley Civilization with Vedic or Hindu culture and since the earliest times Hinduism has never been a majority religion in Pakistan.
1.Nope. It is not. These gods would have been borrowed from local (read IVC) society. Indra is in other Indo-Europian societies like Iranians (where he is a daemon).1. Ridiculous statement. So which other religion has Marut, Brihaspati, Savitr, Surya, Aditi, Pushan, Rbhus,Yama etc?? (All RigVedic Gods)
2. Afghanistan is in Central Asia. So, the RigVeda does indicate the geography of the tribe through such markers. There are other such clues too.
3. Again. How did you arrive at this conclusion without any evidence? It's also equally plausible that IVC borrowed the symbol from Central Asian tribes!
4. Dude, you crossed over from debate on history to theology. Hence the suggestion that you consult an expert on religion or a Jain/Buddhist monk and ask yourselves. It's not me classifying these as separate religions in their own right.
1.Nope. It is not. These gods would have been borrowed from local (read IVC) society. Indra is in other Indo-Europian societies like Iranians (where he is a daemon).
2. IVC was there in present day Afghanistan, Pakistan and India. So was Vedic culture. It means that Aryans did not describe any "foreign" motherland/father land. Another fact - Mleccha in sanskrit is akin to barbarian. Countries like Crotia are called Mleca in their language (curious isn't it?)
3. Rule of thumb. Start from simplest solution. If it doesn't contribute to any anamolies, probaly that is the right solution. Unlike maths, archaeology seldom gets exact proof. Instead of thinking a big circular connection (for which there is no evidence either), it is entirely logical that cultural exchange happened between Vedic and IVC (even though IVC had declined by then)
4. I did not go to theology. It is the discussion that whether IVC were hindus are not. You declared them as non-hindus based on your own definition of hindu. But unfortunately, that definition excludes lot of people/sects who were considered as hindus at that time. Also, Buddists and Jains are not nastikas if nastika is translated to Atheist.