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No Aryan migration into India / Pakistan? Its' all a myth?

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The West Bengladeshis and the Tajiks are found around 70%, Russians/Ukranians/Poles around 50-60%, Scandinavians around 20-30%.

But many Russians still insist that Aryans originated from the Eastern Europe.

I learn new things each day in this forum, now I'm a west bangladeshi! :/
 
The point is that the Indo-Europeans foreigners established themselves as upper castes, therefore lighter skinned Hindus are on top of your caste system while darker skinned Hindus are in the bottom of your caste system, even though the low caste Hindus were the original inhabitants of India...

that theory has been disproved
 
I learn new things each day in this forum, now I'm a west bangladeshi! :/

The people from the state of West Bengal.

No need to be fussy over the noun, people also use to call Tibetans in fact they are Chinese citizens.
 
the vedic aryan culture was actually established in indus valley only...british were very clever to make AIT...as they knew that by only dividing us they can rule us..
same way these british and americans are doing in libiya by dividing people over gaddafi...and sadest thing is people fall for that..
 
the vedic aryan culture was actually established in indus valley only...british were very clever to make AIT...as they knew that by only dividing us they can rule us..
same way these british and americans are doing in libiya by dividing people over gaddafi...and sadest thing is people fall for that..

Do you believe the fraudulence of the 'Indo-European' linguistic theory?

Since the West has been known of plagiarizing the meaning of Aryan.
 
Do you believe the fraudulence of the 'Indo-European' linguistic theory?

Since the West has been known of plagiarizing the meaning of Aryan.

why do we need a theory for that??
most of their languages have been derived from sanskrit and there are many words in their language that clearly show this...no doubt about that...
 
why do we need a theory for that??
most of their languages have been derived from sanskrit and there are many words in their language that clearly show this...no doubt about that...

The Russians claimed that Sanskrit derived from them, from the Proto-Slavic Andronovo culture located in Central Asia.
 
The Russians claimed that Sanskrit derived from them, from the Proto-Slavic Andronovo culture located in Central Asia.

uff.. thats a big problem problem.:blah:
what u think we should do to solve this controversy ?:coffee:
 
The people from the state of West Bengal.

No need to be fussy over the noun, people also use to call Tibetans in fact they are Chinese citizens.

Given the complex geopolitical history of the region, Pakistanis have more right to be called as West Bangladeshis! :P I'm waiting for someone to call us West East Pakistani! :D

Bangladesh is a recent entity, while Bengal is more than millennia old and India is even older. So I'd like to be addressed as Indian Bengali.

Anyway, no offence taken, I was just kidding.
 
The Russians claimed that Sanskrit derived from them, from the Proto-Slavic Andronovo culture located in Central Asia.

What do you mean by Sanskrit? Classical Sanskrit as coded by Panini is completely different language from Vedic Sanskrit.
 
The Russians claimed that Sanskrit derived from them, from the Proto-Slavic Andronovo culture located in Central Asia.

NO LANGUAGE IN THIS WORLD IS AS GRAMMATICALLY CORRECT,PERFECT,PRECISE AS SANSKRIT IS...PANINI DID A BRILLIANT JOB TO DEFINE ITS GRAMMAR AND HENCE Backus–Naur Form IS ALSO SUGGESTED TO BE CALLED PANINI-Backus–Naur Form..
SO TO SAY THAT SANSKRIT WAS DERIVED IS FOOLISH AS FOR THAT THE LANGUAGE FROM WHICH IT WAS DERIVED SHOULD BE SUPERIOR TO IT..
 
What do you mean by Sanskrit? Classical Sanskrit as coded by Panini is completely different language from Vedic Sanskrit.

They claimed that the Pro-Slavic language was the most archaic, so both Vedic Sanskrit and Avestan Iranian derived from the Proto-Slavic language.
 
NO LANGUAGE IN THIS WORLD IS AS GRAMMATICALLY CORRECT,PERFECT,PRECISE AS SANSKRIT IS...PANINI DID A BRILLIANT JOB TO DEFINE ITS GRAMMAR AND HENCE Backus–Naur Form IS ALSO SUGGESTED TO BE CALLED PANINI-Backus–Naur Form..
SO TO SAY THAT SANSKRIT WAS DERIVED IS FOOLISH AS FOR THAT THE LANGUAGE FROM WHICH IT WAS DERIVED SHOULD BE SUPERIOR TO IT..

Any links for the comparitive study ??

I always thought Tholkappiyam - a treatise on Tamil grammar was one of the most extensive works to have been undertaken.
 
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