below_freezing
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Yes, we get it, and we agree: IQ is unchanging and important. What we do not agree on is this: IQ is the most dominant factor in social progress and everything else is not important.
"The crux of the matter is “Where money and technologies etc. external factors come from?” From Mars? No!
With time higher IQ societies develop better technologies, gather more money/finance/resources needed one way or the other, deploy better development policies (more efficient or less corrupted,) etc. Not the other way around in which technologies, money, policies and all the other goodies dropped from heaven helped certain people develop high IQ thereafter. "
- we have to examine how high IQ east asians fell behind low IQ europeans. my theory goes as such: in 18th and 19th century, East Asian population growth + inflation > GDP growth. therefore all GDP growth was put into maintanance of current living standards. The reason for this? East Asia was already running at the carrying capacity of the time for its technology. No surplus capital was avaliable for investment. Indeed, there was actually a decline in real wages during this time even if we ignore wars and colonization.
Europeans were different. They took over two whole continents and killed the inhabitants to make farmland. Previous to the discovery of the Americas, Europe was far behind east asia (and in fact, behind even India). Once they discovered the Americas, they had a situation where carrying capacity >> present population, GDP growth > population growth + inflation, surplus capital accumulated, and was able to be invested. Because of the farming capability of the Americas, Europeans imported food from the Americas which led to the unemployment of European farmers. This led to a surplus labor problem which was resolved when the surplus capital was put to use employing the surplus labor in factories. These factories turned out to be able to even further increase the GDP growth, and so on. That is how one region was able to accumlate wealth faster than another region despite having low IQs.
Now, that's the reason, I think. Why couldn't Asians replicate this model? Or for that matter, why can't Africans? Why did Middle Easterners, who were among the top in the world in 15th century, be reduced to oil sheiks in the 21st? Why can't other low IQ peoples replicate European success?
Simple: Geography for those with enough IQs, and IQs for those with the geography. Europeans got lucky with the discovery of the Americas before anyone else. That's it. Middle Easterners and Asians who have high IQs were cut off by geographical barriers (Africa and the Pacific which is much wider than the Atlantic) to discovery of unexploited resources. Africans had too low IQs and too harsh of a physical geography to even organize major states.
Once oil was discovered in the Middle East, it was already too late; industrialization had already occured, and those who were already on top could prevent those on the bottom from rising up. This is what occured in India in the 19th century when the British destroyed India's textile industry. Why did East Asia rise overall but there remain significant income differences between China/Vietnam/North Korea and South Korea/Singapore/Japan? Because of the Victory Syndrome - every country in Asia that won a war against the West is poorer than every country that lost a war against the West or a colony of the West. Reason? Because the countries that lost the wars were fortunate enough to lose during the Cold War, when the US reconstructed them as forward operating posts to block China and Russia. Countries like North Korea and Vietnam, who "won", were sanctioned and prevented access to existing technology. Why is access necessary? Because the West got to it first, and why did the West get to it first? Blind luck along with enough IQ to take advantage of it.
"The crux of the matter is “Where money and technologies etc. external factors come from?” From Mars? No!
With time higher IQ societies develop better technologies, gather more money/finance/resources needed one way or the other, deploy better development policies (more efficient or less corrupted,) etc. Not the other way around in which technologies, money, policies and all the other goodies dropped from heaven helped certain people develop high IQ thereafter. "
- we have to examine how high IQ east asians fell behind low IQ europeans. my theory goes as such: in 18th and 19th century, East Asian population growth + inflation > GDP growth. therefore all GDP growth was put into maintanance of current living standards. The reason for this? East Asia was already running at the carrying capacity of the time for its technology. No surplus capital was avaliable for investment. Indeed, there was actually a decline in real wages during this time even if we ignore wars and colonization.
Europeans were different. They took over two whole continents and killed the inhabitants to make farmland. Previous to the discovery of the Americas, Europe was far behind east asia (and in fact, behind even India). Once they discovered the Americas, they had a situation where carrying capacity >> present population, GDP growth > population growth + inflation, surplus capital accumulated, and was able to be invested. Because of the farming capability of the Americas, Europeans imported food from the Americas which led to the unemployment of European farmers. This led to a surplus labor problem which was resolved when the surplus capital was put to use employing the surplus labor in factories. These factories turned out to be able to even further increase the GDP growth, and so on. That is how one region was able to accumlate wealth faster than another region despite having low IQs.
Now, that's the reason, I think. Why couldn't Asians replicate this model? Or for that matter, why can't Africans? Why did Middle Easterners, who were among the top in the world in 15th century, be reduced to oil sheiks in the 21st? Why can't other low IQ peoples replicate European success?
Simple: Geography for those with enough IQs, and IQs for those with the geography. Europeans got lucky with the discovery of the Americas before anyone else. That's it. Middle Easterners and Asians who have high IQs were cut off by geographical barriers (Africa and the Pacific which is much wider than the Atlantic) to discovery of unexploited resources. Africans had too low IQs and too harsh of a physical geography to even organize major states.
Once oil was discovered in the Middle East, it was already too late; industrialization had already occured, and those who were already on top could prevent those on the bottom from rising up. This is what occured in India in the 19th century when the British destroyed India's textile industry. Why did East Asia rise overall but there remain significant income differences between China/Vietnam/North Korea and South Korea/Singapore/Japan? Because of the Victory Syndrome - every country in Asia that won a war against the West is poorer than every country that lost a war against the West or a colony of the West. Reason? Because the countries that lost the wars were fortunate enough to lose during the Cold War, when the US reconstructed them as forward operating posts to block China and Russia. Countries like North Korea and Vietnam, who "won", were sanctioned and prevented access to existing technology. Why is access necessary? Because the West got to it first, and why did the West get to it first? Blind luck along with enough IQ to take advantage of it.