This is not a religious discussion..I request moderators to see it as some discussion related to history...The other day I was reading this book on Islamic history called 'No God but God'..there I was reading about how Abu bakr and Umar mistreated Mohammed's daughter Fatima after his death..It was written Abu Bakr didn't give anything to Mohammad's daughter as her inheritance but gave some share of property to his daughter Aisha and mohammad's remaining wives...Fatima gets so angry on Abu bakr that she never talked to him until her death.
I just wanted to check out her age when she died...she was only 28 years old...she was born in 604 AD..Khadija was born in 555 AD..that means she gave birth to Fatima when she was 49 years old...it is nearly impossible to get pregnant at such a late age..even if one gets pregnant at that age,the child doesnt survive more than a few hours..even if it does,the child will generally be mentally handicapped..Something is not adding up.
Besides,it also means Khadija gave Mohammad a child after 8 years of their marriage...Isn't it unbelievable to think Mohammad would not marry again for 8 years when there was every chance of his first wife not giving him a child(Some sources say Mohammad had 6 children though and only fatima survived into adulthood)..1400 years later,even today ,men would marry again if they knew their first wife can't conceive...and here we are talking about a bedouin society where polygamy was a common practice... Something is not adding up...Another proof to say hadeeth are just made up stories?
I just wanted to check out her age when she died...she was only 28 years old...she was born in 604 AD..Khadija was born in 555 AD..that means she gave birth to Fatima when she was 49 years old...it is nearly impossible to get pregnant at such a late age..even if one gets pregnant at that age,the child doesnt survive more than a few hours..even if it does,the child will generally be mentally handicapped..Something is not adding up.
Besides,it also means Khadija gave Mohammad a child after 8 years of their marriage...Isn't it unbelievable to think Mohammad would not marry again for 8 years when there was every chance of his first wife not giving him a child(Some sources say Mohammad had 6 children though and only fatima survived into adulthood)..1400 years later,even today ,men would marry again if they knew their first wife can't conceive...and here we are talking about a bedouin society where polygamy was a common practice... Something is not adding up...Another proof to say hadeeth are just made up stories?
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