Xeric
RETIRED THINK TANK
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Not exactly.Firstly it is irrelevant why those conditions were not fulfilled in the context of determining whether not holding of plebiscite was a 'violation' of UN resolution. The fact is that the conditions were not fulfilled. Hence there was no 'over-ruling' or 'violation' of UN resolutions.
i am more interested in the forced/unilateral/illegal accession of the State by india by just fiddling with its constitutions, as if the world was run the the indian constitution.
That's what we consider as being 'over-ruled'. How can you take a decision once we all (to include the world) recognize the issue as DISPUTED?! Jungle raj?
Pakistan didnt exactly do the same. Just because you wanted to keep your bite tightened on that part of Kashmir sure would imply that you wanted to uphold your interests, even at the cost of over-ruling the resolution.Secondly, it is called negotiation, not dictation. India was within rights not accept what India perceived to be detrimental to its interest. Pakistan did the same.
Thirdly, regarding that generous 'hint' of yours, what you don't know is that even Pakistan didn't agree to the numbers when it mattered. While India demanded that after the demilitarization, she should be allowed to retain 21,000 of her troops together with armour, and Azad Kashmir should be left with a civil force of 4,000 troops of which 2,000 should be unarmed, Pakistan on the other hand demanded that 4,000 troops shall remain on either side, but agreed a 'slight disparity in favour of India'. (refer Dr Graham's 5th Report)
Pakistan agreed much later when she had already reinforced Azad Kashmir force.
A civil forces against well armed regular troops. That's where common sense comes into play. We all know what the demands were on both the sides, but then one needs to be careful of not crossing the threshold of absurdness and idiocity and not to present nonsensical and cockeyed demands.