OK I've done a bit more pondering (but am still as puzzled as before). Here are some of my lingering thoughts:
- I was wrong to say that the capitalism VS. the other -ism debate does not matter if the 80/20 rule holds true. Reading the explanations and debate between
@LeveragedBuyout and
@Faiez makes me think that even if we can't change the wealth distribution, we can change how that distribution came about. That is, we may have to accept that the top 20% will always control 80% of the total wealth, but we can still question whether the top 20% deserved to be there, whether they got there through good merits/efforts or through corruption, nepotism, tyranny, etc. So we can never change the 80-20 wealth distribution, but we can change how the top 20% gets there (or maybe not).
- If the 80-20 rule holds true, then I would need to disagree with
@Edison Chen's last comment that we should find a perfect distribution mechanism. The wealth distribution will always be around 80-20 no matter what we do.
- The explanations given by
@Gauss, Ed, LeveragedBuyout sounds perfectly correct in rationalizing our 80-20 wealth distribution. But I still have an intuition/feeling that it is some other more fundamental principles/laws (maybe the laws of physics?) that give rise to this distribution. My thinking for this goes as follow:
1. We can observe this 80-20 distribution in lots of fields as mentioned by
@Daneshmand and
@rubyjackass.
2. We should agree that these 80-20 distributions observed throughout the universe are not simply a big coincident. They must have came about through some common cause. To identify this common cause, we obviously must try to find a common factor/s that can be identified in all of these 80-20 distributions.
3. In terms of wealth distribution, we could perhaps attribute this 80-20 distribution to the political system (including tax system, labor laws, etc.) of each countries. But we cannot consider these political systems as the
common factor since each country have different political systems, yet still produced the approximate 80-20 distribution. The political system of contemporary USA is not the same as 20th century Italy where Pareto first observed its 80-20 wealth distribution.
4. We can perhaps try to attribute the "common factor" to human traits. As LeveragedBuyout and Gauss has explained, people differ in intelligence, ability, drive, etc. and this will give rise to the 80-20 wealth distribution as observed throughout history. Rubyjackass brings in natural selection to further explain these human traits, and we can perhaps even extend this explanation to other biological life forms. These explanations sound very plausible (and common sensical) but there is one difficulty I have with these explanations: not all systems that produce the 80-20 distribution contains biological life forms.
5. Consider the craters on the moon. Supposedly, we could also observe the 80-20 distribution if we graph the number of craters and it's frequency according to craters sizes. But how these moon craters came about did not involve any biological life forms. And there are lots of other examples where the 80-20 distribution can be observed where biological life forms are not involved at all. So natural selection cannot explain these examples. Human traits can perhaps help us explain/rationalize our 80/20 wealth distribution, but these traits are not the common factor behind
all 80-20 distributions observed throughout our universe.
Conclusion 1: We can perhaps conclude that every 80-20 distributions that we have observed has their own different causes. There exist no common cause or factors among them. 80-20 wealth distribution are causes by human traits, 80-20 moon craters distributions are perhaps caused by the laws of physics, 80-20 distribution of animal foraging behaviour are caused by natural selection, and so on. The common 80-20 distributions that arises from each different causes are just a
BIG coincident. But I don't like this idea of dismissing these observations as coincidence. My gut feelings tells me that there is a common cause or common factor.
Conclusion 2: I'm more inclined to conclude that there is indeed a common cause, and perhaps this common cause can be explained by the law of physics (?). If this is correct, then it means that the global wealth distribution and economy are determined by the laws of physics? (is this what
@FairAndUnbiased was hinting at earlier?)
*stillpuzzled*