Afghan #PTM activist Dr Fauzia Rauf asking afghan girls to convert to hinduism (ghar wapsi) and marry hindu boys and settle in India

[Talwar e Pakistan]

The Persianized tribes are the Nomadic Balouch who have traditionally straddled the area that is now Pakistan and Iran for over 3000 years.

How are they "Persianized"?

 

[magra]

What about the indian Punjabis who have married south/central indians? They will no longer have ANY genetic or racial connections to Pakistan whatsoever.

A small percent of Indian Punjabis would have married elsewhere. Most still marry within the same community.

Even by your own generous estimations (without evidence), you are claiming that at most 5% of indians have some sort of racial/genetic connection to Pakistan.

Yes, 5% of Indians has racial connection to 40% of Pakistanis. So my point is 40% of Pakistanis have connection to some Indians. And this is only from Punjab example.
Muhajirs have connection to Indians from most Northern Indian states.

By the same token we can also argue about the 40% of Pakistanis who have racial/genetic connections to 60% of Afghans and to 30% of Iranians.

Sure, I did not dispute that.

That's actually not true, I have written about this before on another platform when someone claimed that modern-day Pakistan was Hindu around the advent of Islam. Here are some excerpts where I went over each province.

View attachment 774137
View attachment 774138
View attachment 774139

When I said Hindu, I meant all Dharmic religions - Hindus, Jains, Budhists etc. Some of these converted to Islam, Sikhism etc.
Most subcontinent muslims are converts from Hindus and Budhists. Only a small minority are from the invading armies and rulers.

 

[PAKISTANFOREVER]

A small percent of Indian Punjabis would have married elsewhere. Most still marry within the same community.


Yes, 5% of Indians has racial connection to 40% of Pakistanis. So my point is 40% of Pakistanis have connection to some Indians. And this is only from Punjab example.
Muhajirs have connection to Indians from most Northern Indian states.


Sure, I did not dispute that.

How do you know that it is not AT MOST 5% of indians that have some sort of racial/genetic connection to Pakistanis? NOT the other way around?

How are they "Persianized"?

From a racial and genetic point of view. Not a cultural one.

 

[magra]

How do you know that it is not AT MOST 5% of indians that have some sort of racial/genetic connection to Pakistanis? NOT the other way around?

This I derived from taking pre-partition Punjab as an example. Post partition Indian Punjab, Haryana and Himachal constitutes 5-6% of Indian population.
Post partition Pak Punjab constitutes >50% of Pakistan's population.

So it cannot be other way round.

 

[PAKISTANFOREVER]

A small percent of Indian Punjabis would have married elsewhere. Most still marry within the same community.


Yes, 5% of Indians has racial connection to 40% of Pakistanis. So my point is 40% of Pakistanis have connection to some Indians. And this is only from Punjab example.
Muhajirs have connection to Indians from most Northern Indian states.


Sure, I did not dispute that.

When I said Hindu, I meant all Dharmic religions - Hindus, Jains, Budhists etc. Some of these converted to Islam, Sikhism etc.
Most subcontinent muslims are converts from Hindus and Budhists. Only a small minority are from the invading armies and rulers.

Again you are factually incorrect. That 40% you are referring to are indigenous to counterminious Pakistan and hence have no racial or genetic connections to modern day indians. They were pretty much always there.

 

[magra]

Again you are factually incorrect. That 40% you are referring to are indigenous to counterminious Pakistan and hence have no racial or genetic connections to modern day indians. They were pretty much always there.

But the mass migration on both sides accompaning partition meant that many people in both India and Pakistan have racial similarities to those left behind. That is the whole crux of my argument.

If you dont agree, it is fine. I have said enough on this topic.

 

[PAKISTANFOREVER]

But the mass migration on both sides accompaning partition meant that many people in both India and Pakistan have racial similarities to those left behind. That is the whole crux of my argument.

If you dont agree, it is fine. I have said enough on this topic.

The mass migration was at most 14 million in 4 years. That is approximately 7 million for each side. For a nation of over 200 million that is less than 3.5% of our total population and for a nation like india that is less than 0.5% of india's total population. Pakistan probably has more than 8 million legal and illegal Afghans living there right now. So even by your own assertions, there is very little if any racial/genetic connection between Pakistan and india.

 

[magra]

The mass migration was at most 14 million in 4 years. That is approximately 7 million for each side. For a nation of over 200 million that is less than 3.5% of our total population and for a nation like india that is less than 0.5% of india's total population. Pakistan probably has more than 8 million legal and illegal Afghans living there right now. So even by your own assertions, there is very little if any racial/genetic connection between Pakistan and india.

Population of both countries at that time was much lower and hence the migrated population to total population of that time was much higher.