Bhai; I already shown you DNA maps; although Pakistan was the epicenter of migrations and invasions; DNA still shows that many Pakistanis still retain distinct and unique DNA within the region.
How are you claiming DNA of IVC people when you dont have any samples of their DNA?!
IVC collapsed, that does not mean that the people mysteriously transformed into dust. The cradle of civilizations; Egypt and Iraq were all epicenters of migrations and invasions - but demographics were only slightly changed. Many civilizations and have collapsed in history - that does not mean people collapse as well.
So if the IVC collapsed, what could be the reasons?
Invasion? If that's the case, then the original inhabitants of IVC were most likely killed and replaced by invaders. How else does an invasion end? either in death or migration of the original inhabitants. But this seems unlikely since the IVC cities are quite well preserved.
Was it a natural calamity? Lack of food, bad weather, floods? Again, outcome remains that IVC residents were either killed or migrated.
If they migrated, it would be east to India or west to Iran. North made no sense as it goes towards mountains and cold weather. Migration patterns always move in the direction of warm weather and water sources.
If none of the above happened, then where are the people of the IVC? Why was an advanced city abandoned? What happened to their language, script, religion? It should still be preserved if it never left its original lands...how is there no trace of this in the local cultures that flourish there now?
But then, where is the evidence of the same in present day Pakistan? please explain what happened since you keep reposting the map but have not explained what we are to gain from it.
So how exactly are these people then living in the same place where an invasion took place or a natural calamity wiped out a civilization and they either died or migrated?
There is no such theory as people of IVC migrated to Ganges plains - this shows me how much desperate you are getting and how low Indians have to stoop down to. Nor such a migration could ever take place.
Please don't misquote me, i never claimed they moved to the Ganges plains.
I did say that they moved into India or migrated elsewhere and this has been explained above.
The only mass migration of people of IVC was into Eastern Europe.
WHAT?!!!
Where did you get this from?! Nothing that I have read supports this...Please provide source.
Rulers changed, kingdoms changed, culture changed, religion changed - people remained, integrated and adapted.
I can show you the maps again -
I think you are overestimating the importance of these maps in this discussion.
If you don't have evidence of DNA of IVC people in the first place, how can you map the pattern of their migration?!
Or are you assuming that since Pakistanis live on what was IVC land that it is to be assumed that Pakistani DNA is the same as IVC inhabitant DNA?!! Coz that's a logical fallacy and wrong from the onset!
South Indus
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