William Hung
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OK, can some stats nerd or economics guru please help explain something for me...
Back in high school, I was taught something called the 80/20 phenomena. It's basically the Pareto principle (Pareto principle - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia), which can be observed in all kinds of sitiation in this world. We don't know how or why it is so, it just is. A phenomena, I was told.
Anyway, I remember I once had a discussion with some friends about wealth inequality and the Pareto principle was used. One argument against wealth redistribution was that...it is just a fact that around 80% of the global wealth will ALWAYS be controlled/owned by only 20% of the global population. It is dictated by the Pareto principle. It is what it is...a phenomena that cannot be explained, nor can it be changed, no matter what we do. In essence then, what those Occupy movement protesters were fighting for.... was already something impossible to achieve.
Frankly, I thought this was the best "anti-wealth redistribution" argument I've heard so far (and I'm a leftist). Basically, why bother trying to redistribute when the distribution curve will always remain the same? But I'm not a stats or economics guy so I'm not sure whether there are any flaws in this argument or not.
So could some smart people confirm whether the argument is sound or not? if there are flaws, can someone explain briefly (and simply) how this argument is flawed?
I've briefly browsed around the web but am still unsure of the answer. This guy thinks it's true and we just have to accept it:
The Pareto Principle and Wealth Inequality | Pragmatic Capitalism
But another guy doesn't seem to think so (and he doesn't really explain why). He mentioned that the distribution inside the US has now already deviated from the 80/20 rule moving closer to 90/20 (but still close enough???):
Where the Pareto Principle falls short | PandoDaily
So, any smart people here care to explain this phenomena, whether it can truly be applied to wealth distribution or not?
Back in high school, I was taught something called the 80/20 phenomena. It's basically the Pareto principle (Pareto principle - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia), which can be observed in all kinds of sitiation in this world. We don't know how or why it is so, it just is. A phenomena, I was told.
Anyway, I remember I once had a discussion with some friends about wealth inequality and the Pareto principle was used. One argument against wealth redistribution was that...it is just a fact that around 80% of the global wealth will ALWAYS be controlled/owned by only 20% of the global population. It is dictated by the Pareto principle. It is what it is...a phenomena that cannot be explained, nor can it be changed, no matter what we do. In essence then, what those Occupy movement protesters were fighting for.... was already something impossible to achieve.
Frankly, I thought this was the best "anti-wealth redistribution" argument I've heard so far (and I'm a leftist). Basically, why bother trying to redistribute when the distribution curve will always remain the same? But I'm not a stats or economics guy so I'm not sure whether there are any flaws in this argument or not.
So could some smart people confirm whether the argument is sound or not? if there are flaws, can someone explain briefly (and simply) how this argument is flawed?
I've briefly browsed around the web but am still unsure of the answer. This guy thinks it's true and we just have to accept it:
The Pareto Principle and Wealth Inequality | Pragmatic Capitalism
But another guy doesn't seem to think so (and he doesn't really explain why). He mentioned that the distribution inside the US has now already deviated from the 80/20 rule moving closer to 90/20 (but still close enough???):
Where the Pareto Principle falls short | PandoDaily
So, any smart people here care to explain this phenomena, whether it can truly be applied to wealth distribution or not?
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